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Can Yeshua/Jesus be "The King of Israel"?

17 Kislev 5781 | December 3th, 2020

This is an interesting question indeed. A question not to take lightly. This question can come to surface after reading the criteria whereto the Messiah needs to fulfill, according Jewish tradition. To name a few: He needs to be Jewish and a member of the tribe of Judah; To be a member of the tribe of Judah, his biological father needs to be a member of the tribe of Judah; He needs to be a direct descendant of both king David and king Solomon, who were both kings of ‘great’ Israel. Furthermore, the genealogy, described in Matthew 1 and in Luke 3, is considered inconsequent. One goes from David to Solomon and the other goes from David to Nathan. Both of them ends with Joseph, who is the husband of Miryem/Maria, where Yeshua is born from.
To me, reading this criterion, pops up another question:

“Does the Messiah come from the line David => Solomon?”

Let us find answers to these two questions.

The Messiah

When there is spoken over the Messiah, one thinks only to the king.
The Hebrew word for “messiah” is “mashiach” and it comes from the word “mashach”, which means “anointed”. “The Messiah” is in Hebrew: “HaMashiach”: The Anointed.

Who were anointed for their service? Kings, prophets, and priests were anointed for their services.
However, if we search in the Hebrew Bible – the TaNaKH [OT] – for the word “hamashiach [the anointed]”, we will only find four results. All four of them in the book Vayikra/Leviticus. Three times in chapter four and one time in chapter six. All four of them points out to the priests. Why is that, since not only priests are being anointed for their services, but kings and prophets as well? Why is it that only priests are named “HaMashiach [The Messiah = The Anointed]” and not king David for example, or the mediator and prophet Moshe/Moses?
It is because priests are the only ones carrying the iniquities of the people and (symbolically) ate partially the sins of the people (Shemot/Exodus 28:36-38; Vayikra/Leviticus 6:25-26 [18-19]; 10:16-17). When a priest sinned, then automatically the entire people. This was the reason why a priest who had sinned had to offer the same offer as when the entire people had sinned: a young bull

In B’reshit/Genesis 3:14-15 there is mentioned about the coming of the Messiah. It says that a zera will come out of her and will crush the head of the zera that will come out of the snake.
The Hebrew word zera literally means “seed, sperm, offspring, harvest of the sown, sowing time”.
Notice that there has been mentioning about her zera, and not about his zera. Also, in the book Yeshayahu/Isaiah it says that an almah [a young unmarried woman = a virgin] will be pregnant and give birth to a son (Yeshayahu/Isaiah 7:14). Here too there has been no mentioning about his son/son of [beno]. So, claiming that the Messiah must have a biological father, is against the TaNaKH.

We also should know what the Aramaic word “bar בר” and the Hebrew word “ben בן” means.
Both are translated into “son (of)”, but this is not the only meaning of those two words. The words “bar & ben” means “(adoptive)son, grandson, son in law, stepson, student and follower”. A student calls his rabbi “father”.